I asked:
"For example, why Richard Stark, but not Robert Kyle?"
Ron replied:
'If I read your question correctly, the writer behind the
penname
"Richard Stark" is not Robert Kyle, but rather Donald
Westlake. If I've misconstrued your question, my
apologies."
No apology necessary, I was definitely unclear. I meant to
ask: Why print Lemons Never Lie under the Stark pseudonym
(because Westlake's still using it?), but change the the
Robert Kyle pseudonym to Robert Terrall? And other
pseudonymous books to Block, McBain etc? I'm guessing those
were changed back because they'd sell more, but wouldn't
Crichton also sell better than Lange? Or would that last be
messing with a brandname?
Mark
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